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jantje's avatar

That graph is not so obvious when you look at the source.

Thanks for investigating the details.

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Steven's avatar

To what extent, if any, can this be explained by the majority of medical research historically having used only male subjects? Put another way, is this plausibly a catch up effort to address gaps in the literature regarding women's health that are already answered regarding men's health? Are there current disparities in average outcomes for females versus males that this might be attempting to rectify?

This looks really bad, but I don't want to assume that perception is reality without checking for any possible reasonable explanations first.

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